this post was submitted on 27 Aug 2025
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Originally Posted By u/MrDillon369 At 2025-08-27 06:51:44 AM | Source


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[–] butwhyishischinabook@lemmy.world 2 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Then why isn't he period before the fall of the USSR being counted as American Empire?

[–] Nfamwap@lemmy.world 1 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Because it was just a few decades between the end of WW2 and the fall of the USSR

Okay, and I understand your broader point, but do you see why that's a non sequitur?