But this is a non sequitur because I never said the world could only have one empire at a time. I pointed out the limited extent of the US's period of dominance and nothing else.

[–] butwhyishischinabook@lemmy.world 2 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Then why isn't he period before the fall of the USSR being counted as American Empire?

[–] Nfamwap@lemmy.world 1 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Because it was just a few decades between the end of WW2 and the fall of the USSR

[–] butwhyishischinabook@lemmy.world 2 points 2 days ago

Okay, and I understand your broader point, but do you see why that's a non sequitur?