this post was submitted on 28 Apr 2025
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[–] ptz@dubvee.org 28 points 1 day ago

The answer is the square root of pancake.

√πŸ₯ž

[–] gerryflap@feddit.nl 16 points 20 hours ago* (last edited 20 hours ago) (3 children)

Okay, so:

  1. πŸ‡ = 1, because 1 + 1 + 1 = 3
  2. Therefore, πŸͺ = 2, because 2 - 1 - 1 = 0
  3. πŸ₯ͺ is the set of all integer numbers Z, as defined
  4. I am not sure about πŸ”, but I assume that it's the set of integers with all even numbers removed, therefore it's the set of all odd numbers.

Beyond that starts the nonsense for me. I'm very curious whether that stuff actually checks out. Some of the terms I remember from group theory, but other stuff seems incorrect to my (limited) knowledge.

  • The second definition of πŸ• seems to contain redundant information, as far as I can see " --> " defines a morphism, so why does the predicate "Ο† is a morphism" matter?

  • The first definition of πŸ• with the contravariant thing also doesn't parse for me, what does that "-" mean in the function arguments?

  • In the definition of 🌭, what is the n (or the P)? ChatGPT started yapping about real projective space, but I'm not sure if that's correct.

If there's an actual mathematician here who knows then I'd love to know the answer. I've kinda been nerd sniped by this question but I don't possess the knowledge to fully get this one

[–] MBM@lemmings.world 5 points 10 hours ago* (last edited 10 hours ago) (1 children)

πŸ” is the set of integers modulo 2 (more literally, if two integers differ by an even integer you consider them the same). I can write out more in a bit.

Edit: this previous post has some good comments, and you can find some of the notation and the answer on the wikipedia page for cohomology ring (they use F~2~ for integers mod 2 and RP^n^ instead of P^n^(R)). I don't know enough algebraic topology to actually know why that's the answer but I can at least answer these:

The first definition of πŸ• with the contravariant thing also doesn’t parse for me, what does that β€œ-” mean in the function arguments?

I assume it's shorthand for saying that if you define f(x) = πŸ•(x, B) then f : C --> Set is contravariant.

In the definition of 🌭, what is the n (or the P)? ChatGPT started yapping about real projective space, but I’m not sure if that’s correct.

It's not the notation I'm used to (I'd also think of power sets first), but I think it's n-dimensional real projective space.

[–] gerryflap@feddit.nl 2 points 2 hours ago

Ah thanks for the info! Together with the other in-depth comment this is painting a good picture of what's happening. Though I have some terms to study before I'll get it.

[–] kogasa@programming.dev 4 points 6 hours ago* (last edited 5 hours ago) (1 children)

πŸ•(--, B) : C -> Set denotes the contravariant hom functor, normally written Hom(--, B). In this case, C is a category, and B is a fixed object in that category. The -- can be replaced by either an object or morphism of C, and that defines a map from C to Set.

For any given object X in C, the hom-set Hom(X, C) is the set of morphisms X -> B in C. For a morphism f : X -> Y in C, the Set morphism Hom(f, B) : Hom(Y, B) -> Hom(X, B) is defined by sending each g : Y -> B to gf : X -> B. This is the mapping C -> Set defined by Hom(--, C), and it's a (contravariant) functor because it respects composition: if h : X -> Y and f : Y -> Z then fh : X -> Z and Hom(fh, C) = Hom(h, C)Hom(f, C) sends g : Z -> B to gfh : X -> B.

--

P^(n)(R) AKA RP^n is the n-dimensional real projective space.

--

The caveat "phi is a morphism" is probably just to clarify that we're talking about "all morphisms X -> Y [in a given category]" and not simply all functions or something.

--

For more context, the derived functor of Hom(--, B) is called the Ext functor, and the exactness of that sequence (if the typo were fixed) is the statement of the universal coefficient theorem (for cohomology): https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_coefficient_theorem The solution to this problem is the "Example: mod 2 cohomology of the real projective space" on that page. It's (Z/2Z)[x] / <x^(n+1)> or πŸ”[x]/<x^(n+1)>, i.e. the ring of polynomials of degree n or less with coefficients in πŸ” = Z/2Z, meaning coefficients of 0 or 1.

[–] gerryflap@feddit.nl 2 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

Okay I have some reading to do haha. Thanks for the explanation!

As a programmer (who also did quite some math) it never ceases to amaze me how often math just uses single character variable/function names that apparently have a specific meaning. For instance the P^(n)(R) thingy. Without knowing this specific notation, one might easily assume it meant something else like power sets. Even within the niche I'm more familiar with (machine learning) there was plenty of that stuff going around.

Then again, this meme has an incentive to make it harder, it wouldn't be funny if it explained symbols.

[–] kogasa@programming.dev 3 points 2 hours ago

Math builds up so much context that it's hard to avoid the use of shorthand and reused names for things. Every math book and paper will start with definitions. So it's not really on you for not recognizing it here

[–] Zenoctate@lemmy.world 2 points 13 hours ago* (last edited 13 hours ago) (1 children)

All I can say is that P(ℝ) refers to a power set of ℝ (all rational numbers). Although I don't know what n stands for in Pⁿ(ℝ)

Basically P(A), where A = {1,2,3}, equal {Ξ¦,1,2,3,(1,2),(2,3),(1,3),(1,2,3)}

[–] gerryflap@feddit.nl 1 points 11 hours ago (2 children)

Yeah this was a possibility I was thinking as well. The superscript n could just be n recursive applications, but then n is still not defined. It's one of the things that makes me thing that it's just nonsense. Also, how do you do math on Lemmy? Can you just use LaTeX math syntax or did you copy those symbols?

[–] kogasa@programming.dev 1 points 6 hours ago

It's real projective space

[–] Zenoctate@lemmy.world 1 points 11 hours ago (1 children)

Wrote it from my phone using Unexpected Keyboard app with Greek symbols included and used superscripts and subscripts feature. I just used the markdown feature of writing code to create some formatting. Like this A = {}

Also this post is nonsense, hence posted here.

[–] kogasa@programming.dev 3 points 6 hours ago* (last edited 5 hours ago) (1 children)

It's not nonsense, although there is a typo that makes it technically unsolvable. If you fix the typo, it's an example calculation in the wikipedia page on the universal coefficient theorem: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_coefficient_theorem

[–] Zenoctate@lemmy.world 0 points 3 hours ago

Learned something new today

[–] MissJinx@lemmy.world 16 points 1 day ago (1 children)

How insane you have to be to do math with letters?! Math uses numbers you dumbs!

[–] Zenoctate@lemmy.world 3 points 1 day ago

Maths also uses my life to solve too