this post was submitted on 20 Jul 2025
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Sure.
https://www.refworld.org/reference/annualreport/cscoal/2001/en/52887
https://www.thefreelibrary.com/Pakistan+Taliban+Policy+1994-1999.-a0292423798
I mean, that's certainly true, but not even close to Pakistan's contribution.
On the other hand, in agreement with the broader point of blame, Saudi Arabia has invested a massive amount of resources in radicalizing impoverished Muslim countries worldwide by funding extremist mosques and schools under the cover of innocuous religious support.
I guess we're in the realm of semantics here. I would posit the question, though, with a theoretical example:
EDITED FOR A BETTER COMPARISON AND ALSO I JUST REALIZED THIS IS LITERALLY THE CASE IN SYRIAN KURDISTAN
If ethnic Turkmen living in Iraqi Kurdistan formed a paramilitary group, with their leaders having been educated in state schools in Turkiye and trained by Turkish military camps, getting the majority of their recruits from inside Turkiye, not Iraqi Kurdistan, receiving direct support in the form of both materiel supply and seconded troops and commanders from the Turkish military along with independent supporting strikes from the Turkish military, and advocating policy positions which conveniently line up with Turkish desires for Iraqi Kurdistan...
Would you call them Turkish paramilitaries, Kurdish paramilitaries, or Iraqi paramilitaries?
Yeah fair enough.