this post was submitted on 12 Mar 2025
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No Stupid Questions

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[–] amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone -3 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (2 children)

the short answer is colonization. the US school system admires the Castilian language more because they have a shared history with the Spanish empire of using European languages to commit cultural genocide against the indigenous peoples of America

[–] Noel_Skum@sh.itjust.works 0 points 1 day ago (1 children)

You may want to reread the question as your answer makes zero sense.

[–] amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

which part don't you understand? maybe I can explain

[–] Noel_Skum@sh.itjust.works 0 points 1 day ago

Mainly it’s because not a single human being in Mesoamérica spoke any form of Spanish before, uh, the Spaniards turned-up. (And began committing their genocide)

The question was asking why Castilian was taught, as opposed to any other dialect/form of Spanish that is spoken in geographically proximous states to the US.

[–] daniskarma@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 1 day ago (1 children)

It makes zero sense.

The indigenous people didn't talk in Mexican Spanish.

[–] amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

I didn't say they did. Spanish versions from Latin America are still marginalized though because the indigenous peoples heavily influenced the language and the vocabulary, etc. that's why Spaniards get judgemental when they "correct" Latine people because they view their language as inferior and grammatically incorrect

[–] daniskarma@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

I have never seen a Spaniard correct anyone from Latin America or thinking their language is less correct.

For your knowledge Spain itself have a lot of dialects in the Peninsula, all of which sound different. And Latin American dialects are influenced by Southern Spain dialects as most colonizers were from there. In the Canary Islands and in some parts of Andalusia they also use "ustedes" as second person, for instance.

I think you just made some scenarios in your head to be angry or something.

Most """"conflict"""" between Spain and Latin America languages I've seen is the never ending jokes about who has better dubbing for foreign movies or shows.

[–] amino@lemmy.blahaj.zone 0 points 23 hours ago (1 children)

I just made up the genocide Spain committed in the Americas? lol ok buddy

[–] daniskarma@lemmy.dbzer0.com 1 points 22 hours ago* (last edited 21 hours ago)

The thing is that the genocide have nothing to do with the differences between Latin american and Castillian languages.

The people commiting the genocide was the people who went to Latin America and "created" Latin American Spanish dialect.

Current ascendants of Latin American people were not genocided by Spaniards. The ascendants of current Latin American people genocided the native people that used to live there.

So it makes zero sense trying to talk anything about anyone looking down to Latin American Spanish dialects because genocide of any of the things you have said. Because the people being genocided and colonized had not that language. Latin American dialect was the language spoken by the ones doing the killing, mate.