this post was submitted on 27 Apr 2025
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[–] SolarMonkey@slrpnk.net 2 points 17 hours ago* (last edited 17 hours ago) (1 children)

That’s probably because early Germanic languages formed the base of the early English language, even before we “added” a ton of French and other shit through (actual and) cultural conquest.

If you look through language roots, English splits from Germanic at some point close enough to make the rules logical going from English to German but probably not the other way around, idk.

[–] otter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 2 points 15 hours ago

This is quite true. 🤓🤘🏼