this post was submitted on 21 Aug 2025
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[–] undergroundoverground@lemmy.world 4 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Where did you get that idea from?

Greek was the lingua franka of the Eastern med and his first language would've been aramaic. So, why would he ignore his first and second languages, to speak Turkish to a Jewish and roman audience?

[–] Justas@sh.itjust.works 4 points 1 day ago (2 children)

There exists a consensus among scholars that Jesus of Nazareth spoke the Aramaic language.[1][2] Aramaic was the common language of Roman Judaea, and was thus also spoken by Jesus' disciples. The villages of Nazareth and Capernaum in Galilee, where he spent most of his time, were populated by Aramaic-speaking communities.[3] Jesus probably spoke the Galilean dialect, distinguishable from that which was spoken in Roman-era Jerusalem.[4] Based on the symbolic renaming or nicknaming of some of his apostles, it is also likely that Jesus or at least one of his apostles knew enough Koine Greek to converse with non-Judaeans. It is reasonable to assume that Jesus was well versed in Hebrew for religious purposes, as it is the liturgical language of Judaism.[5][6][7][8]

I mixed up Aramaic and Anatolian, my bad.

[–] undergroundoverground@lemmy.world 3 points 1 day ago (1 children)

No worries, I'm sure done worse this week alone.

Yeah, Koine Greek is common Greek, at the time. In my defense, its unlikely that they would've called it ancient Greek back then 😁.

So, to me, it i would figure that he would've spoken common Greek, in the way they use English in India, back in the days of the British empire. Of course, there's no way to be sure of that. Either way, anything approaching primary documents would've been in Greek, to a point where it might not even matter what language Jesus actually used.

[–] Justas@sh.itjust.works 3 points 1 day ago

From my understanding, the primary sources were oral traditions, only written down later.

I mean Anatolia is right there.